CPTIA Updated Exam Dumps [2024] Practice Valid Exam Dumps Question
CPTIA Sample with Accurate & Updated Questions
NEW QUESTION # 73
Cybersol Technologies initiated a cyber-threat intelligence program with a team of threat intelligence analysts. During the process, the analysts started converting the raw data into useful information by applying various techniques, such as machine-based techniques, and statistical methods.
In which of the following phases of the threat intelligence lifecycle is the threat intelligence team currently working?
- A. Processing and exploitation
- B. Dissemination and integration
- C. Planning and direction
- D. Analysis and production
Answer: A
Explanation:
The phase where threat intelligence analysts convert raw data into useful information by applying various techniques, such as machine learning or statistical methods, is known as 'Processing and Exploitation'. During this phase, collected data is processed, standardized, and analyzed to extract relevant information. This is a critical step in the threat intelligence lifecycle, transforming raw data into a format that can be further analyzed and turned into actionable intelligence in the subsequent 'Analysis and Production' phase.References:
* "Intelligence Analysis for Problem Solvers" by John E. McLaughlin
* "The Cyber Intelligence Tradecraft Project: The State of Cyber Intelligence Practices in the United States (Unclassified Summary)" by the Carnegie Mellon University's Software Engineering Institute
NEW QUESTION # 74
You are talking to a colleague who Is deciding what information they should include in their organization's logs to help with security auditing. Which of the following items should you tell them to NOT log?
- A. Timestamp
- B. Session ID
- C. userid
- D. Source IP eddross
Answer: C
Explanation:
Logging User IDs (D) can pose privacy concerns and may conflict with regulations such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), which emphasizes the protection of personal data and privacy. Therefore, while logging details such as Timestamps, Session IDs, and Source IP addresses are essential for security auditing to track when events occur, who is initiating sessions, and from where, care must be taken with User IDs. The handling of personally identifiable information (PII) must comply with privacy laws and organizational policies to safeguard individual privacy rights.
References:Security best practices and compliance frameworks discussed in the CREST guide incident handlers on what information should and should not be logged, emphasizing the need to balance security auditing requirements with privacy and regulatory obligations.
NEW QUESTION # 75
An XYZ organization hired Mr. Andrews, a threat analyst. In order to identify the threats and mitigate the effect of such threats, Mr. Andrews was asked to perform threat modeling. During the process of threat modeling, he collected important information about the treat actor and characterized the analytic behavior of the adversary that includes technological details, goals, and motives that can be useful in building a strong countermeasure.
What stage of the threat modeling is Mr. Andrews currently in?
- A. Threat ranking
- B. System modeling
- C. Threat determination and identification
- D. Threat profiling and attribution
Answer: D
Explanation:
During the threat modeling process, Mr. Andrews is in the stage of threat profiling and attribution, where he is collecting important information about the threat actor and characterizing the analytic behavior of the adversary. This stage involves understanding the technological details, goals, motives, and potential capabilities of the adversaries, which is essential for building effective countermeasures. Threat profiling and attribution help in creating a detailed picture of the adversary, contributing to a more focused and effective defense strategy.References:
* "The Art of Threat Profiling," by John Pirc, SANS Institute Reading Room
* "Threat Modeling: Designing for Security," by Adam Shostack
NEW QUESTION # 76
Daniel is a professional hacker whose aim is to attack a system to steal data and money for profit. He performs hacking to obtain confidential data such as social security numbers, personally identifiable information (PII) of an employee, and credit card information. After obtaining confidential data, he further sells the information on the black market to make money.
Daniel comes under which of the following types of threat actor.
- A. Organized hackers
- B. Industrial spies
- C. Insider threat
- D. State-sponsored hackers
Answer: A
Explanation:
Daniel's activities align with those typically associated with organized hackers. Organized hackers or cybercriminals work in groups with the primary goal of financial gain through illegal activities such as stealing and selling data. These groups often target large amounts of data, including personal and financial information, which they can monetize by selling on the black market or dark web. Unlike industrial spies who focuson corporate espionage or state-sponsored hackers who are backed by nation-states for political or military objectives, organized hackers are motivated by profit. Insider threats, on the other hand, come from within the organization and might not always be motivated by financial gain. The actions described in the scenario-targeting personal and financial information for sale-best fit the modus operandi of organized cybercriminal groups.References:
* ENISA (European Union Agency for Cybersecurity) Threat Landscape Report
* Verizon Data Breach Investigations Report
NEW QUESTION # 77
Michael is a part of the computer incident response team of a company. One of his responsibilities is to handle email incidents. The company receives an email from an unknown source, and one of the steps that he needs to take is to check the validity of the email. Which of the following tools should he use?
- A. Zendio
- B. Yesware
- C. Email Dossier
- D. G Suite Toolbox
Answer: C
Explanation:
Email Dossier is a tool designed to assist in the investigation of email incidents by analyzing and validating email headers and providing detailed information about the origin, routing, and authenticity of an email.
When Michael is tasked with handling an email incident and needs to check the validity of an email received from an unknown source, Email Dossier can be utilized to trace the email's path, assess its credibility, and identify potential red flags associated with phishing or other malicious email-based attacks.
References:The CREST CPTIA curriculum emphasizes the importance of tools and techniques for email incident handling, including the use of Email Dossier for investigating suspicious emails and aiding in the response to email-based threats.
NEW QUESTION # 78
Which of the following components refers to a node in the network that routes the traffic from a workstation to external command and control server and helps in identification of installed malware in the network?
- A. Hub
- B. Network interface card (NIC)
- C. Gateway
- D. Repeater
Answer: C
Explanation:
A gateway in a network functions as a node that routes traffic between different networks, such as from a local network to the internet. In the context of cyber threats, a gateway can be utilized to monitor and control the data flow to and from the network, helping in the identification and analysis of malware communications, including traffic to external command and control (C2) servers. This makes it an essential component in detecting installed malware within a network by observing anomalies or unauthorized communications at the network's boundary. Unlike repeaters, hubs, or network interface cards (NICs) that primarily facilitate network connectivity without analyzing the traffic, gateways can enforce security policies and detect suspicious activities.References:
* "Network Security Basics," Security+ Guide to Network Security Fundamentals
* "Malware Command and Control Channels: A Journey," SANS Institute InfoSec Reading Room
NEW QUESTION # 79
Which of the following port scanning techniques involves resetting the TCP connection between client and server abruptly before completion of the three-way handshake signals, making the connection half-open?
- A. Xmas scan
- B. Stealth scan
- C. Null scan
- D. Full connect scan
Answer: B
Explanation:
The port scanning technique that involves resetting the TCP connection between the client and server abruptly before the completion of the three-way handshake, thereby leaving the connection half-open, is known as a Stealth scan (also referred to as a SYN scan). This technique allows the scanner to inquire about the status of a port without establishing a full TCP connection, making the scan less detectible to intrusion detection systems and less likely to be logged by the target. It's a method used to discreetly discover open ports on a target machine without establishing a full connection that would be visible in logs.References:CREST materials often cover different types of network scanning techniques, including Stealth scans, explaining their methodologies, purposes, and how they can be detected or mitigated.
NEW QUESTION # 80
Alison, an analyst in an XYZ organization, wants to retrieve information about a company's website from the time of its inception as well as the removed information from the target website.
What should Alison do to get the information he needs.
- A. Alison should recover cached pages of the website from the Google search engine cache to extract the required website information.
- B. Alison should use https://archive.org to extract the required website information.
- C. Alison should use SmartWhois to extract the required website information.
- D. Alison should run the Web Data Extractor tool to extract the required website information.
Answer: B
Explanation:
To retrieve historical information about a company's website, including content that may have been removed or altered, Alison should use the Internet Archive's Wayback Machine, accessible athttps://archive.org. The Wayback Machine is a digital archive of the World Wide Web and other information on the Internet, providing free access to snapshots of websites at various points in time. This tool is invaluable for researchers and analysts looking to understand the evolution of a website or recover lost information.References:
* "Using the Wayback Machine for Cybersecurity Research," Internet Archive Blogs
* "Digital Forensics with the Archive's Wayback Machine," by Jeff Kaplan, Internet Archive
NEW QUESTION # 81
In which of the following storage architecture is the data stored in a localized system, server, or storage hardware and capable of storing a limited amount of data in its database and locally available for data usage?
- A. Distributed storage
- B. Cloud storage
- C. Object-based storage
- D. Centralized storage
Answer: D
Explanation:
Centralized storage architecture refers to a system where data is stored in a localized system, server, or storage hardware. This type of storage is capable of holding a limited amount of data in its database and is locally available for data usage. Centralized storage is commonly used in smaller organizations or specific departments within larger organizations where the volume of data is manageable and does not require the scalability offered by distributed or cloud storage solutions. Centralized storage systems simplify data management and access but might present challenges in terms of scalabilityand data recovery.References:
* "Data Storage Solutions for Your Business: Centralized vs. Decentralized," Techopedia
* "The Basics of Centralized Data Storage," by Margaret Rouse, SearchStorage
NEW QUESTION # 82
If a hacker cannot find any other way to attack an organization, they can influence an employee or a disgruntled staff member. What type of threat is this?
- A. Identity theft
- B. Footprinting
- C. Insider attack
- D. Phishing attack
Answer: C
Explanation:
If a hacker influences an employee or a disgruntled staff member to gain access to an organization's resources or sensitive information, this is classified as an insider attack. Insider attacks are perpetrated by individuals within the organization, such as employees, contractors, or business associates, who have inside information concerning the organization's security practices, data, and computer systems. The threat from insiders can be intentional, as in the case of a disgruntled employee seeking to harm the organization, or unintentional, where an employee is manipulated or coerced by external parties without realizing the implications of their actions.
Phishing attacks, footprinting, and identity theft represent different types of cybersecurity threats where the attacker's method or objective differs from that of insider attacks.References:The CREST program addresses various types of threats, including insider threats, emphasizing the importance of recognizing and mitigating risks posed by individuals within the organization.
NEW QUESTION # 83
Lizzy, an analyst, wants to recognize the level of risks to the organization so as to plan countermeasures against cyber attacks. She used a threat modelling methodology where she performed the following stages:
Stage 1: Build asset-based threat profiles
Stage 2: Identify infrastructure vulnerabilities
Stage 3: Develop security strategy and plans
Which of the following threat modelling methodologies was used by Lizzy in the aforementioned scenario?
- A. OCTAVE
- B. TRIKE
- C. DREAD
- D. VAST
Answer: A
Explanation:
The threat modeling methodology employed by Lizzy, which involves building asset-based threat profiles, identifying infrastructure vulnerabilities, and developing security strategies and plans, aligns with the OCTAVE (Operationally Critical Threat, Asset, and Vulnerability Evaluation) methodology. OCTAVE focuses on organizational risk and security practices, emphasizing self-directed risk assessments to identify and prioritize threats to organizational assets and develop appropriate security strategies and plans. This methodology is asset-driven and revolves around understanding critical assets, identifying threats to those assets, and assessing vulnerabilities, leading to the development of a comprehensive security strategy.
References:
* The CERT Guide to System and Network Security Practices by Julia H. Allen
* "OCTAVE Method Implementation Guide Version 2.0," Carnegie Mellon University, Software Engineering Institute
NEW QUESTION # 84
Tibson works as an incident responder for MNC based in Singapore. He is investigating a web application security incident recently faced by the company. The attack is performed on a MS SQL Server hosted by the company. In the detection and analysis phase, he used regular expressions to analyze and detect SQL meta-characters that led to SQL injection attack.
Identify the regular expression used by Tibson to detect SQL injection attack on MS SQL Server.
- A. ((\.|%2E)(\.|%2E)(\/|%2F|\\|%5C))
- B. ((\%3C)|<)((\%2F)|\/)*(script)((\%3E)|>)
- C. ((\.\.\\)|(\.\.\/))
- D. /exec(\s|\+)+(s|x)p\w+/ix
Answer: D
Explanation:
The regular expression/exec(\s|\+)+(s|x)p\w+/ixis designed to match patterns that resemble SQL injection attempts, specifically targeting MS SQL Server. This expression looks for the use of theexeccommand followed by one or more spaces or plus signs, and then patterns that start withsporxp, which are prefixes commonly used in SQL Server stored procedures and extended stored procedures. These are often targeted in SQL injection attacks to execute malicious SQL statements. The regular expression provided is a tool used by incident responders like Tibson to identify and analyze potential SQL injection attempts by looking for suspicious patterns in SQL queries.
NEW QUESTION # 85
Which of the following tools helps incident responders effectively contain a potential cloud security incident and gather required forensic evidence?
- A. Cloud Passage Halo
- B. CloudPassage Quarantine
- C. Qualys Cloud Platform
- D. Alert Logic
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cloud Passage Halo is a security platform designed to provide comprehensive visibility and protection for cloud environments, making it an effective tool for incident responders dealing with potential cloud security incidents. It offers capabilities for detecting, responding to, and containing threats across public, private, and hybrid cloud environments. With features like automated security policies, compliance monitoring, and threat detection, Cloud Passage Halo enables incident responders to quickly contain incidents and gather the required forensic evidence to investigate the scope and impact of a breach or security issue. Tools like Alert Logic and Qualys Cloud Platform also provide security and compliance solutions for cloud environments, but Cloud Passage Halo is specifically recognized for its robust incident response and containment capabilities.
References:The Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) certification materials and courses discuss various tools and technologies that support cloud security incident response, including the role of platforms like Cloud Passage Halo in effective incident management.
NEW QUESTION # 86
Which of the following options describes common characteristics of phishing emails?
- A. Written in French
- B. No BCC fields
- C. Urgency, threatening, or promising subject lines
- D. Sent from friends or colleagues
Answer: C
Explanation:
Phishing emails often share common characteristics designed to manipulate the recipient into taking immediate action. One of the hallmark features is the use of urgency, threatening language, or promising subject lines in the emails. These tactics are intended to create a sense of urgency or fear, compelling the recipient to respond quickly without giving due consideration to the legitimacy of the email. Phishing emails may claim that the recipient's account has been compromised, that they need to confirm personal information immediately, or that they have won a prize. The goal is to trick the recipient into clicking on malicious links, opening attachments, or providing sensitive information.
References:The Certified Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) program by EC-Council covers the identification and handling of phishing incidents, including the analysis of phishing emails and the importance of educating users on recognizing and responding to phishing attempts.
NEW QUESTION # 87
Jim works as a security analyst in a large multinational company. Recently, a group of hackers penetrated into their organizational network and used a data staging technique to collect sensitive data. They collected all sorts of sensitive data about the employees and customers, business tactics of the organization, financial information, network infrastructure information and so on.
What should Jim do to detect the data staging before the hackers exfiltrate from the network?
- A. Jim should analyze malicious DNS requests, DNS payload, unspecified domains, and destination of DNS requests.
- B. Jim should identify the web shell running in the network by analyzing server access, error logs, suspicious strings indicating encoding, user agent strings, and so on.
- C. Jim should monitor network traffic for malicious file transfers, file integrity monitoring, and event logs.
- D. Jim should identify the attack at an initial stage by checking the content of the user agent field.
Answer: C
Explanation:
In the scenario described, where attackers have penetrated the network and are staging data for exfiltration, Jim should focus on monitoring network traffic for signs of malicious file transfers, implement file integrity monitoring, and scrutinize event logs. This approach is crucial for detecting unusual activity that could indicate data staging, such as large volumes of data being moved to uncommon locations, sudden changes in file integrity, or suspicious entries in event logs. Early detection of these indicators can help in identifying the staging activity before the data is exfiltrated from the network.References:
* NIST Special Publication 800-61 Rev. 2, "Computer Security Incident Handling Guide"
* SANS Institute Reading Room, "Detecting Malicious Activity with DNS and NetFlow"
NEW QUESTION # 88
Your company sells SaaS, and your company itself is hosted in the cloud (using it as a PaaS). In case of a malware incident in your customer's database, who is responsible for eradicating the malicious software?
- A. The PaaS provider
- B. Your company
- C. The customer
- D. Building management
Answer: B
Explanation:
In the scenario where your company sells Software as a Service (SaaS) and is hosted on the cloud using it as a Platform as a Service (PaaS), your company is responsible for eradicating malware in your customer's database. This is because, as the SaaS provider, your company manages the software and is responsible for its security and maintenance, including the databases that store customer data. While the PaaS provider is responsible for the underlying infrastructure, platform, and possibly some middleware security aspects, the application layer security, including data and application management, falls to the SaaS provider. Building management wouldnot be involved in digital security matters, and while customers are responsible for their data, the actual software maintenance and security in a SaaS model are the provider's responsibility.
References:Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) certification materials often discuss cloud service models (IaaS, PaaS, SaaS) and their associated security responsibilities, highlighting the importance of understanding who is responsible for what in cloud environments.
NEW QUESTION # 89
During the vulnerability assessment phase, the incident responders perform various steps as below:
1. Run vulnerability scans using tools
2. Identify and prioritize vulnerabilities
3. Examine and evaluate physical security
4. Perform OSINT information gathering to validate the vulnerabilities
5. Apply business and technology context to scanner results
6. Check for misconfigurations and human errors
7. Create a vulnerability scan report
Identify the correct sequence of vulnerability assessment steps performed by the incident responders.
- A. 4-->1-->2-->3-->6-->5-->7
- B. 2-->1-->4-->7-->5-->6-->3
- C. 1-->3-->2-->4-->5-->6-->7
- D. 3-->6-->1-->2-->5-->4-->7
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct sequence of steps performed by incident responders during the vulnerability assessment phase is as follows:
* Perform OSINT information gathering to validate the vulnerabilities (4):Initially, Open Source Intelligence (OSINT) is used to gather information about the organization's digital footprint and potential vulnerabilities.
* Run vulnerability scans using tools (1):Next, specialized tools are employed to scan the organization's networks and systems for vulnerabilities.
* Identify and prioritize vulnerabilities (2):The identified vulnerabilities are then analyzed and prioritized based on their severity and potential impact on the organization.
* Examine and evaluate physical security (3):Physical security assessments are also crucial as they can impact the overall security posture and protection of digital assets.
* Check for misconfigurations and human errors (6):This step involves looking for misconfigurations in systems and networks, as well as potential human errors that could lead to vulnerabilities.
* Apply business and technology context to scanner results (5):The results from the scans are evaluated within the context of the business and its technology environment to accurately assess risks.
* Create a vulnerability scan report (7):Finally, a comprehensive report is created, detailing the vulnerabilities, their severity, and recommended mitigation strategies.
This sequence ensures a thorough assessment, prioritizing vulnerabilities that pose the greatest risk and providing actionable insights for mitigation.References:CREST CPTIA courses and study guides elaborate on the vulnerability assessment process, detailing the steps involved in identifying, evaluating, and addressing security vulnerabilities within an organization's IT infrastructure.
NEW QUESTION # 90
Darwin is an attacker residing within the organization and is performing network sniffing by running his system in promiscuous mode. He is capturing and viewing all the network packets transmitted within the organization. Edwin is an incident handler in the same organization.
In the above situation, which of the following Nmap commands Edwin must use to detect Darwin's system that is running in promiscuous mode?
- A. nmap --script=sniffer-detect [Target IP Address/Range of IP addresses]
- B. nmap -sV -T4 -O -F -version-light
- C. nmap --script hostmap
- D. nmap -sU -p 500
Answer: A
Explanation:
The GPG18 and Forensic readiness planning (SPF) principles outline various guidelines to enhance an organization's readiness for forensic investigation and response. Principle 5, which suggests that organizations should adopt a scenario-based Forensic ReadinessPlanning approach that learns from experience gained within the business, emphasizes the importance of being prepared for a wide range of potential incidents by leveraging lessons learned from past experiences. This approach helps in continuously improving forensic readiness and response capabilities by adapting to the evolving threat landscape and organizational changes.
References:While specific documentation from GPG18 and SPF might detail these principles, the CREST CPTIA program by EC-Council covers the concept of forensic readiness planning, including adopting scenario-based approaches and learning from past incidents as a fundamental aspect of enhancing an organization's incident response and forensic capabilities.
NEW QUESTION # 91
James is a professional hacker and is employed by an organization to exploit their cloud services. In order to achieve this, James created anonymous access to the cloud services to carry out various attacks such as password and key cracking, hosting malicious data, and DDoS attacks. Which of the following threats is he posing to the cloud platform?
- A. Data breach/loss
- B. Insecure interface and APIs
- C. Abuse end nefarious use of cloud services
- D. Insufficient duo diligence
Answer: C
Explanation:
James's activities, including creating anonymous access to cloud services to carry out attacks such as password and key cracking, hosting malicious data, and conducting DDoS attacks, exemplify the abuse and nefarious use of cloud services. This threat involves exploiting cloud computing resources to conduct malicious activities, which can impact the cloud service provider as well as other users of the cloud services.
This abuse ranges from using the cloud platform's resources for computationally intensive tasks like cracking passwords or encryption keys to conducting DDoS attacks that can disrupt services for legitimate users.
References:The Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) certification emphasizes understanding cloud-specific security challenges, including the abuse of cloud services, and recommends strategies for mitigating such risks, highlighting the need for comprehensive security measures to protect cloud environments.
NEW QUESTION # 92
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